Only two other antipsychotic medications have official FDA indications for bipolar depression, probably because the other drug companies did not spend the money to get it. If doctors know one member of a class works, they’ll know that the others probably will too, so why bother? One of these two drugs that has the bipolar indication is actually a combination drug containing an antipsychotic medication (Olanzepine [Zyprexa]) AND the antidepressant Prozac. The other is Quetiapine [Seroquel].
He conveniently neglected to point out in the earlier paper that the sample of patients he used in this study had already proved to be resistant to antidepressant medication in the first place, and continued to dissemble about this omission when I had the opportunity to confront him about it. Some subjects of his had even failed a trial of a combined antidepressant and antipsychotic. The conclusion of the study as presented in the study was bogus as hell.
His reference for this statement? It is an editorial he himself wrote in the same journal as the original bogus Sachs article appeared [New England Journal of Medicine 356 (17), 4/26/07 (NEJM)]! I went and got a copy of it. These folks seem to all run in the same circles, as well as in the same circular reasoning.
Aside from the fact that there is absolutely no clinical evidence for that whatsoever, Belmaker neglects to mention that at least one of the two meta-analyses showing that antidepressants were effective did not limit itself to studies done overseas, but included studies done in the States! (I could not get a hold of the second, but this is probably also true of that one as well).